Date: Thu, 30 Jul 1998 12:35:52 -0700 (PDT)

From: heath hinkhouse

could you please settle a dispute that i have with a co-worker. he says that it is possible to roll a dice and never roll a two. i say that it is impossible to prove because to figure a probability you would need a subset of numbers, rather than rolling to infinity. you could also never prove it because you could never roll to infinity. so basically my question is this: is it possible to roll a dice without ever rolling a certain digit and if so how could you prove this? if you can, what is the probability, if you can caluculate it?