on https://www.cut-the-knot.com/blue/chinese.shtmlit'states:

When m1 and m2 are coprime their gcd is 1. By convention, a = b (mod 1) is simply understood as the usual equality a = b.

What strikes me as odd is the phrase "is simply understood

as the usual equality a = b"...

if I understand correctly 'a' and 'b' may not be equal!

i.e. 3 = 5 (mod 1) does not mean that 3 = 5.

Am I understanding 'mod' correctly?.

Consider:

n = 3 (mod 27)

n = 5 (mod 25)

Chinese remainder Theorem states this has a solution iff

3 = 5 (mod 1), since gcd(25,27)=1

a = b (mod 1) should aways be true yes? (since a (mod1) = 0

and b (mod 1) = 0) ?

In this case it would seem Chinese Remainder Theorem is

really only useful if gcd(m1,m2) > 1 otherwise it doesn't

really help you find n1 or n2, (or n).

(The solution for the above is n=30)

Steve