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Sumudu
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Mar2607, 05:40 AM (EST) 

2. "RE: Fagnano's formula for ð"
In response to message #0

Are Taylor series needed to prove that??? All you need is log(r*e^{it}) = log(r) + it (1i)/(1+i) is just a fancy way of writing i = e^{i(pi/2)} From which the formula follows directly. I'm not sure that it is any more special than Euler's formula for e^{it} 

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