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CTK Exchange
Sumudu

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Mar-26-07, 05:40 AM (EST) |
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2. "RE: Fagnano's formula for ð"
In response to message #0
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Are Taylor series needed to prove that??? All you need is log(r*eit) = log(r) + it (1-i)/(1+i) is just a fancy way of writing -i = e-i(pi/2) From which the formula follows directly. I'm not sure that it is any more special than Euler's formula for eit |
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