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Deep G
Member since Nov-6-05
Nov-24-05, 05:27 PM (EST)

"Base 1 ???"

 there has been quite some discussion over defining numbers with base n>1 and n=1.A numbering system's basic requirement would be to be able to distinguish beetween the 'presence' and 'absence' of the physical entity being counted. (Indeed, counting gave birth to numbers, isn't it?). This implies atleast two symbols are required to deal with the phenomenon of counting. Does that make base 1 undefinable? Yes, it could be defined (I do not know whether it IS defined or not, but what follows is just a logical approach to how it'should be defined in case it isn't already defined) in the sense that absence of the symbol should represent 'absence' of any physical entity and presence of the symbol representing the presence.In this case, the decimal numbers shall be represented by -0 -> 1 -> 12 -> 113 -> 111... and so on.Defining operations -'<','>' : length of the string determines order'+': appending two strings'-': truncating one string from otherand so on...ANY COMMENTS?

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mpdlc
guest
Nov-28-05, 08:49 AM (EST)

1. "RE: Base 1 ???"
In response to message #0

 < A numbering system's basic requirement would be to be able to distinguish beetween the 'presence' and 'absence' of the physical entity being counted.>That is very rational, however western civlization took a while to accept the zero. Taken from the cover of book of Charles Seife "ZERO"< The Babilonian invented, the Greeks banned it, the Hindus worshipped it,and the Christian Church used it to fend off heretic. Today it's a timebomb in the heart od astrophysics.>I suggest check link related to unary numeration system.https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Unary_numeral_systemSorry I cannot help you, as engineer or naval architect my knowledge in theoretical math is very limited.

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