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CTK Exchange
jmolokach
Member since Aug-17-10
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Sep-29-10, 03:30 PM (EST) |
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"Would someone comment on the soundness of this statement?"
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I have tried to simplify the teaching of relationships of inverse functions' derivatives by using a term I created called "counterpoints." So if f and g are inverse functions, their "counterpoints" are (x,y) and (y,x) and the derivatives (or slopes) at these respective points are reciprocals. I hope I did not oversimplify things, but it'seems to me a nice alternative to the standard definition given in textbooks. molokach |
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jmolokach
Member since Aug-17-10
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Sep-29-10, 09:40 PM (EST) |
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4. "RE: Would someone?"
In response to message #3
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"A theorem is not a definition. A theorem is something that needs to be proved. A definition is something that captures a useful concept."Yes, I realized this after posting. I wrongly inserted the word definition in the post when I meant to say theorem. "Your counterpoints definition may be useful in grasping or memorizing both the idea behind the relation between the two derivatives and the procedure for computing one of them in terms of the other. Still, it does not replace the theorem. I, therefore, do not see to which it is an alternative." I suppose what I am asking is if my explanation is sufficient to show the relationship without mentioning the form: (d/dx) = 1 / <(d/dx)[f^(-1)'(x)>]...which for me is hard enough to type, let alone explain to high school students... It was not my intention to "rewrite" the theorem, only to give some clarity to the idea presented in the theorem without having to mention the rather involved notation.... so not an alternative to the theorem itself, but rather an alternative way to present the theorem.... I hope I am making sense... molokach |
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jmolokach
Member since Aug-17-10
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Sep-29-10, 10:08 PM (EST) |
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6. "RE: Would someone?"
In response to message #5
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OK, thanks. My formula then is this... If f and g are inverse functions, then f having the point (x,y) means that g has the point (y,x). Since the tangents as well as the functions are reflected over the line y = x, f'(x) = 1 / g'(y) molokach |
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alexb
Charter Member
2629 posts |
Sep-29-10, 11:28 PM (EST) |
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7. "RE: Would someone?"
In response to message #6
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That's good. Perhaps, as an extra contrivance, one may distinguish between "variable" x and y and "constant" x0 and y0. The reason is that in y = x and f'(x) = 1 / g'(y), x and y play different roles. In f'(x) = 1 / g'(y) y is a value for x, so that I'd rather write f'(x0) = 1 / g'(y0). |
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