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The set of all subsets of a given set is bigger than the set itself
Let there be a set X. Notation 2X stands for the
set of all subsets of X. Two sets X and Y are said to be equivalent or have the same cardinality
if there exists between them a 1-1 correspondence. We say that X is bigger than Y if they are not
equivalent but there exists a 1-1 correspondence between Y and a subset of X. If X is bigger than Y than Y is smaller than X.
We show that 2X is bigger than X in two steps. Firstly, let's consider one element subsets of X: {x}, where x X.
Then f(x)={x} is a 1-1 correspondence of X onto the subset of 2X that consists of one element subsets of X. Secondly, assume that X and 2X
are equivalent, i.e. there exists a 1-1 g: X 2X. Let's show that this assumption leads
to a contradiction.
It must be noted that for every x X, g(x) 2X. In other words,
g(x) is a subset of X, g(x) X. Thus, either x g(x) or not. Let's
define the set A={x X: x g(x)}. Now we have an interesting situation.
Since we assumed g is a 1-1 correspondence between X and 2X there exists a X such that g(a)=A. It's legitimate
to ask whether a A. Let's check this.
If a A={x X: x g(x)} then
a g(a)=A. Contradiction.
If a g(a), then obviously, by the definition of A, we have to conclude that
a A=g(a). Contradiction again.
The only conclusion we may draw is that our original assumption that X and 2X are equivalent, leads to a contradiction. Hence it's false.
- Does It Blink?
- Apparent paradox
- Set of all subsets
- An Impossible Page
- Russell's paradox
- An Impossible Machine
- A theorem with an obvious proof
Copyright © 1996-2008 Alexander Bogomolny
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