Two statements in which the premise of one appears as the conclusion of the other and vice versa, are known as the converse of each other. In our case, the first statement happens to be a theorem (i.e., a proven statement). This does not automatically imply that the second statement is also provable. In general, it may or may not be a theorem. In this particular situation, the second statement is indeed correct and can be proved. Furthermore, the proof I am aware of is based on the validity of the converse theorem.
Copyright © 1996-2008 Alexander Bogomolny
Forget for a moment about one of the given circles. For example, drop the one associated with the vertex B. This leaves us with two circles and a triangle. The two remaining circles share two points: E and O. Through the points O, D and F draw a circle. Now, we are in the position described in Statement A. If we start with the point C, then extend CE till A, from which we draw AF. Likewise, in the other direction, we construct CD. By Statement A, AF and CD meet at a point on the just constructed circle. However, it is a condition of the statement we are proving that AF and CD meet at the vertex B of the given triangle. Therefore, B lies on the circle that passes through three points O, D, and F. But the circle through B, D, and F is the one we erased (apparently only temporarily) at the beginning of the proof. Put another way, the point O (the second intersection of the two circles associated with vertices A and C) belongs two the circle that passes through B, D, and F. This proves Statement B.
For the reference sake, the latter statement is known as the Pivot theorem.
References
- D.Wells, You are a Mathematician, John Wiley & Sons, 1995
Copyright © 1996-2008 Alexander Bogomolny