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Date: Fri, 22 Oct 2000 13:14:10 -0300 (GMT) From: martin lukarevski Hi Alexander, Four years ago a young woman posted following problem: Can this trigonometric inequality be proved
where A,B,C are angles in a triangle. I wish to say that this one was the hardest but in the same time the most interesting trigonometric inequality I ever come across. Yes, it can be proved but I believe not directly and not by means. Let’s start with the proof. At the beginning we will transform (1) in an equivalent form using formulas: Sin(A) = a / (2·R) and Sin2(A/2) = (a2 - (b – c )2) / ( 4·b·c ) And analogously for the other terms in (1) where a, b, c are the lenghts of the sides of the triangle and R
is its circumradius. With this and using
which is still too difficult to be proved. So, another transformation follows. Now we may put: x = (b + c – a )/2, y = ( c + a – b )/2, z = ( a + b – c )/2 Hence a = y + z, b = z + x, c = x + y, and x = p – a, y = p – b , z = p – c, where p is the semiperimeter of the triangle. We must bear in mind that a,b,c are sidelengths and therefore x,y,z are all strictly positive. With this and using Heron’s formula S2 = p·( p – a )·( p – b )·( p – c ), (2) becomes:
Eqivalent to (3) is:
If we prove (4) for all x,y,z > 0 we are done. For that purpose we will use the following inequality which is standard exercise and can easily be verified:
And now the last blow. If we use Cauchy-Schwarz-Bunyakovski inequality for the left side of (4) we obtain: K Q.E.D. This comletes the proof. Best regards, P.S. I would like to know Alex, what is the source of this problem.
Copyright © 1996-2008 Alexander Bogomolny
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