I am a little disappointed that no one has commented on this yet. I would like to say if you haven't read this that I have two different (but somewhat related) proofs of the Pythagorean Theorem in the paper, both of which I have also included in the prior thread 'A question.' The question I now have is, have I adequately defended the use of sin(A+B) = sinC = 1 in a right triangle?